David M.
Turner
IS FOOTWASHING TO BE PRACTICED TODAY?
The washing of the disciples' feet by Jesus (John 13:1-17) was a cultural form.
Although the principle communicated in foot washing is trans-cultural, the form
is not. By evaluating the content of the passage and comparing foot
washing with the two ordinances of the church (Baptism and The Lord's Supper) I
will show that the washing of the disciples' feet by Jesus was done to
illustrate a major principle. The form, however, was not meant to become a
regular practice of the Church.
Culturally, the washing of feet was a customary practice in the
It was for this reason that the disciples were astounded by Jesus when he began
to wash their feet. He was not a servant but their "Teacher and Lord".
It offended them that Jesus would do such a humiliating task.
But this was the very point he was attempting to teach them. Prior to the
Passover a dispute had developed between the disciples over who would be the
greatest among them (Luke 9:46-48). On that occasion Jesus used little
children to illustrate the importance of humility. This did not stop the
discussion, however, and it soon became an obsession for them. Even after
Jesus washed their feet this concern was still on their minds (Luke 22:24-27).
The purpose of his washing their feet then, was to show that the greatest among
them would be the one who was willing to become the least. In so doing he
shattered their notions as to what true greatness was.
Was the form essential beyond its use for conveying the message? Let's
look to the passage and see. In verse 14 Jesus says, "you should do as I
have done for your"(NIV). This is not a command in the since that they
were to literally wash one another feet. Compare this request with Jesus'
opening statement concerning the Lord's prayer in Luke 11, "when you pray, say .
. .". Was Jesus telling his disciples to always pray that and only that
prayer? Of course not. It was an example given for them to use in
structuring their personal prayers. Can the Lord's actions in foot washing
also be considered an example? Notice the Lord's own words in verse 15, "I
have set you an example . . ." Again, the emphasis is on the principle and not
the means of conveying that principle.
The washing of the disciple’s feet is an account unique to the Gospel of John.
None of the other gospels tell of it, the epistles never notice it, and Luke
never says a word concerning its practice in the early accounts of the church in
Acts. In contrast, the ordinances of Baptism and the Lord's Supper are
recognized throughout the New Testament. Baptism is often spoken of in all
four gospels (not the Lord's). It is explained by Paul in three epistles
and Luke refers to it as a common practice in the Acts. The Lord's Supper
is found in three of the gospels, is expounded upon by Paul in two epistles,
Peter speaks of it, and Luke accounts of its importance to the early Church in
the Acts.
It is obvious from its status in Scripture that the form of foot washing has
minor significance to the whole of this passage. Jesus used a cultural
form to teach a trans-cultural principle. By placing to much emphasis on
the form we miss the true beauty of the message which Jesus conveyed to this
disciples. Washing feet is non-essential; serving Christ, by serving one
another is the true path to greatness.
Now, it might be asked, "How can we discern a Biblical command as cultural
(restricted to the people of that culture in that day) to a trans-cultural
command (one not limited to a culture but applied to all cultures)? This
is not a simple task but requires patient study and evaluation on the part of
the interpreter.
Our first responsibility is to determine the meaning of the passage. What
did the writer attempt to communicate? This requires interpretation and
can usually be done in the following manner. First, to whom is the passage
addressed? Is it to everyone or to a specific group of believer? Is
it to the disciples? This is important in determining the scope of the
message. Second, why was this teaching given? What are the
underlying reasons for the passage? Is the reason clear? Third, are there
conflicts in this teaching? Can these conflict be resolved with other passages?
Fourth, is the passage context treated as normative? "Does Scripture command
obedience to the form itself, or is the command merely given in the context of a
historical or cultural form? On this last point it must be added that it
is essential to recognize the difference between the form. Foot washing is
an illustration of a command to obey the principle of servanthood, not the form
of the act of foot-washing.